Y a il un doute possible sur la traduction de ce hadith ?
Publié : ven. 25 juil. 2014 00:02
Sunan Abi Dawud 4361
http://sunnah.com/abudawud/40/11
En arabe:
En lisant la traduction, il me semble assez évident, que le texte dit que le coup de couteau dans le ventre de la femme enceinte à tué l'enfant, et que la pauvre femme a fait une fausse couche. Mais sur des forums islamiques, on me répond "non, en fait elle à juste accouché en même temps, le bébé est vivant". (justification qui ne changerait rien au problème, on est bien d'accord)
En lisant le texte arabe, c'est de la pure mauvaise foi, ou pas ?
http://sunnah.com/abudawud/40/11
En arabe:
Traduction en anglais:حَدَّثَنَا عَبَّادُ بْنُ مُوسَى الْخُتَّلِيُّ، أَخْبَرَنَا إِسْمَاعِيلُ بْنُ جَعْفَرٍ الْمَدَنِيُّ، عَنْ إِسْرَائِيلَ، عَنْ عُثْمَانَ الشَّحَّامِ، عَنْ عِكْرِمَةَ، قَالَ حَدَّثَنَا ابْنُ عَبَّاسٍ، أَنَّ أَعْمَى، كَانَتْ لَهُ أُمُّ وَلَدٍ تَشْتُمُ النَّبِيَّ صلى الله عليه وسلم وَتَقَعُ فِيهِ فَيَنْهَاهَا فَلاَ تَنْتَهِي وَيَزْجُرُهَا فَلاَ تَنْزَجِرُ - قَالَ - فَلَمَّا كَانَتْ ذَاتَ لَيْلَةٍ جَعَلَتْ تَقَعُ فِي النَّبِيِّ صلى الله عليه وسلم وَتَشْتِمُهُ فَأَخَذَ الْمِغْوَلَ فَوَضَعَهُ فِي بَطْنِهَا وَاتَّكَأَ عَلَيْهَا فَقَتَلَهَا فَوَقَعَ بَيْنَ رِجْلَيْهَا طِفْلٌ فَلَطَخَتْ مَا هُنَاكَ بِالدَّمِ فَلَمَّا أَصْبَحَ ذُكِرَ ذَلِكَ لِرَسُولِ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه وسلم فَجَمَعَ النَّاسَ فَقَالَ " أَنْشُدُ اللَّهَ رَجُلاً فَعَلَ مَا فَعَلَ لِي عَلَيْهِ حَقٌّ إِلاَّ قَامَ " . فَقَامَ الأَعْمَى يَتَخَطَّى النَّاسَ وَهُوَ يَتَزَلْزَلُ حَتَّى قَعَدَ بَيْنَ يَدَىِ النَّبِيِّ صلى الله عليه وسلم فَقَالَ يَا رَسُولَ اللَّهِ أَنَا صَاحِبُهَا كَانَتْ تَشْتِمُكَ وَتَقَعُ فِيكَ فَأَنْهَاهَا فَلاَ تَنْتَهِي وَأَزْجُرُهَا فَلاَ تَنْزَجِرُ وَلِي مِنْهَا ابْنَانِ مِثْلُ اللُّؤْلُؤَتَيْنِ وَكَانَتْ بِي رَفِيقَةً فَلَمَّا كَانَتِ الْبَارِحَةَ جَعَلَتْ تَشْتِمُكَ وَتَقَعُ فِيكَ فَأَخَذْتُ الْمِغْوَلَ فَوَضَعْتُهُ فِي بَطْنِهَا وَاتَّكَأْتُ عَلَيْهَا حَتَّى قَتَلْتُهَا . فَقَالَ النَّبِيُّ صلى الله عليه وسلم " أَلاَ اشْهَدُوا أَنَّ دَمَهَا هَدَرٌ " .
Ma question porte sur cette phrase: "A child who came between her legs was smeared with the blood that was there."A blind man had a slave-mother who used to abuse the Prophet (ﷺ) and disparage him. He forbade her but she did not stop. He rebuked her but she did not give up her habit. One night she began to slander the Prophet (ﷺ) and abuse him. So he took a dagger, placed it on her belly, pressed it, and killed her. A child who came between her legs was smeared with the blood that was there. When the morning came, the Prophet (ﷺ) was informed about it.
He assembled the people and said: I adjure by Allah the man who has done this action and I adjure him by my right to him that he should stand up. Jumping over the necks of the people and trembling the man stood up.
He sat before the Prophet (ﷺ) and said: Messenger of Allah! I am her master; she used to abuse you and disparage you. I forbade her, but she did not stop, and I rebuked her, but she did not abandon her habit. I have two sons like pearls from her, and she was my companion. Last night she began to abuse and disparage you. So I took a dagger, put it on her belly and pressed it till I killed her.
Thereupon the Prophet (ﷺ) said: Oh be witness, no retaliation is payable for her blood.
En lisant la traduction, il me semble assez évident, que le texte dit que le coup de couteau dans le ventre de la femme enceinte à tué l'enfant, et que la pauvre femme a fait une fausse couche. Mais sur des forums islamiques, on me répond "non, en fait elle à juste accouché en même temps, le bébé est vivant". (justification qui ne changerait rien au problème, on est bien d'accord)
En lisant le texte arabe, c'est de la pure mauvaise foi, ou pas ?
